That was the first place I looked. The only scriptural reference I saw was John 3:16 (Whosoever believes in him shall not perish but have everlasting life), and the rest was their rationalization that because the verse read "whosoever" that Jesus also meant homosexuals, meaning that homosexuality is ok. What about the first chapter of Romans? Did that verse not plainly state the premise of homosexuality? These people have agreed upon the bible as their standard for justifacation, yet they did not bring this up.[b said:Quote[/b] (Dark Virtue @ Oct. 29 2004,8:27)]It's in the BIBLE section.
There are multiple pages to click through.
Not sure if you looked there or not.